NAVY OFFICERS
Induction of officers in the various Branches of the Indian Navy
is undertaken through one of the following modes/schemes:-
(A) UNION PUBLIC SERVICE
COMMISSION (UPSC) ENTRIES
(i) Combined Defence Services
Examination (CDSE)
(ii) National
Defence Academy (Navy)
(iii) National
Defence Academy (Naval Academy)
(iv) NCC
(B) DIRECT ENTRY :
PERMANENT COMMISSION FOR UNDERGRADUATE LEVEL ENTRY
(i) 10+2(B.Tech)
(C) DIRECT ENTRY :
PERMANENT COMMISSION FOR GRADUATE LEVEL ENTRIES
(i) Sports
(ii) Musician
(iii) Law
(D) INDIAN NAVY ENTRANCE
TEST (INET) : PERMANENT COMMISSION/ SHORT SERVICE
COMMISSION FOR GRADUATE LEVEL ENTRIES
(i) Pilot (MR) - for men
and women
(ii) Pilot (NMR) –
for men only
(iii) Observer- for
men and women
(iv) Air Traffic
Contro (ATC) - for men and women
(v) General
Service - Executive (GS/X)/
(vi) Hydro– for men
only
(vii) General
Service (Technical – Electrical & Engineering)
(viii) Naval
Architect- for men and women
(ix) Information
Technology– for men only
(x)
Logistics- for men and women
(xi) Education- for
men and women
(xii) Naval Armament
Inspectorate Cadre (NAIC) - for men and women
National Defence Academy (Navy) & National Defence Academy (Naval Academy)
This entry is controlled by UPSC with IHQ MoD
(Army)/ADG (Recruiting) as nodal agency. It consists of written examination
conducted by the UPSC followed by conduct of the SSB interview, medical test by
Indian Navy (Naval candidates only) and final preparation of merit list by
UPSC. The appointment letter for NDA (Navy and Naval Academy) are issued by IHQ
MoD (Army)/ADG (Recruiting) and IHQ MoD/DMPR respectively. The training of
officers selected through this entry, commences in the month of Jan/Jul every
year. The advertisement for this entry is published in Jun/Dec. Tentative
examination schedule of NDA entry is as follows:-
|
Sr. No. |
Name of Exam |
Notification by UPSC |
Written Test
Conducted by UPSC |
SSB Conducted by Navy |
Joining at Academy |
|
(i) |
NDA &NA Exam(I) |
Dec/Jan |
Apr |
Aug-Sep |
January next year |
|
(ii) |
NDA &NA Exam(II) |
Jun/Jul |
Oct/Nov |
Jan-Feb |
July next year |
Combined Defence Services Exam (CDSE)
This entry also consists of written exam
conducted by the UPSC, followed by conduct of the SSB interview, medical test
by Indian Navy (Naval candidates only) and final preparation of merit list by
UPSC. The appointment letter is issued by IHQ MoD/DMPR. The training of
officers selected through this entry commences in the month of Jan/Jul and the
advertisement is published in Nov/Jul. Tentative examination schedule of
CDS entry is as follows:-
|
Sr. No. |
Name ofExam |
Notification by UPSC |
Written Test
Conducted by UPSC |
SSB Conducted by Navy |
Joining at Academy |
|
(i) |
CDS Exam (I) |
Nov |
Feb/Mar |
Sep-Oct |
January next year |
|
(ii) |
CDS Exam (II) |
July |
Oct/Nov |
Jan-Feb |
July next year |
NCC Entry
The vacancies for Naval Wing Senior Div NCC
‘C’ certificate holders with B.E./B.Tech degree are published along with CDSE
advertisement. No written test is conducted for this entry. The eligible
candidates are required to forward their application directly to IHQ MoD (N)/
DMPR through DGNCC. The candidates are deputed for SSB interview. After
qualifying SSB these candidates undergo medical examination and if found fit,
are inducted in the Indian Navy on the basis of All India Merit. The training
of officers selected through this entry normally commences in the month of
Jan/Jul every year.
Direct Entry : Permanent Commission For Undergraduate Level
Entry : 10+2(B.Tech)
12th Pass with 70% in PCM and 50% in English in 10th or 12thstandard can
apply for IN officers’ entry viz 10+2(B.Tech). Wef Jan 17, JEE
(Mains) rank has been made compulsory to apply for 10+2(B.Tech)
entry. This entry is opened twice a year for Sprin Term & Autumn
Term. NHQ prepares and releases the advertisement in Employment
News/Important Newspapers for inviting applications 6-8 months prior to
the commencement of the course. Post receipt of applications, candidates
are shortlisted for SSB based on JEE (Main) – All India Rank (AIR) for
BE/B Tech curriculum. Validity of the JEE (Main) rank for applying for the
scheme is one year from the date of declaration of the JEE (Main) ranking by
CBSE/NTA. On completion of all SSBs, merit list is prepared in respect of
all SSB qualified candidates and candidates are thereafter appointed in order of
merit based on no. of vacancies.
Direct Entry : Permanent Commission For Graduate Level Entries
The Direct entries are controlled by
IHQ-MoD(Navy)/DMPR and cater for both Permanent Commission(PC) and Short
Service Commission. Advertisement calling for applications from eligible
unmarried candidates for such entries are published in the leading newspapers
and Employment News based on the availability of vacancies. Post receipt of
applications, preliminary scanning of candidates is conducted at IHQ-MoD(Navy)
for their professional ability in respect of Musician and Sports
entries. Successful candidates are thereafter detailed for SSB interviews
at Bangalore/Bhopal/Coimbatore/ Vizag/Kolkata. The SSB qualified candidates
undergo medical examination and if found fit, are inducted in the Indian Navy
on the basis of All India Merit. The training of these entries normally
commences in the months of Jan and Jul.
INDIAN NAVY ENTRANCE TEST (INET)
1.
Introduction. Indian Navy Entrance Test (INET) is the
officers’ entry under the control of IHQ MoD (Navy)/ DMPR and caters for both
Permanent Commission (PC) and Short Service Commission (SSC). The INET will be
conducted twice a year.
2. Selection Procedure
The selection procedure is as follows:-
(a) INET. INET
(Officer) is a computer based written examination. There will be four
sections and candidate is required to pass in all four sections separately with
minimum 40% marks.
(i)
Examination Centre. All eligible
candidates, whose applications are received by due date, will be called for
Indian Navy Entrance Test (INET) to be conducted at one of the INET
centres as per their choice, subject to availability of slots at that
centre. Call up letters cum Admit Card for online examination indicating
date, time and place, would be required to be downloaded from the official
website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in. Only
Electronic mode of communication will be used while contacting the candidates
at all stages of selection. Once the centre is opted by a candidate, it
cannot be changed in any circumstances.
(ii)
INET Syllabus. INET exam will be of two hours
duration. It will contain 100 Multiple Choice Questions comprising
Questions on English, Reasoning & Numerical Ability, General Knowledge,
General Science & Mathematical Aptitude. Each section will be of 100
marks with negative marking of one mark for incorrect answer.
(b)
Shortlisting for SSB. IHQ of MoD (N) reserves
the right to shortlist candidates strictly on the basis of INET rank cum
preference & choice. However candidates are required to qualify in all
sections of INET Exam to be considered for shortlisting to appear in SSB
interview. No communication will be entertained on this account. SSB interviews
for short-listed candidates will be tentatively scheduled at Bangalore for
Pilot & Observer candidates and at Bangalore/ Bhopal/ Visakhapatnam/
Kolkata for other branches/ entries. Shortlisted candidates will be informed
about their selection for SSB interview on their e-mail or through SMS
(provided by candidates in their application form). Candidates are advised
not to change their e-mail/ mobile No till selection process is over.
(c)
Merit List & Appointment Letter
(i) Merit list
will be based on combined marks of INET (50% weightage) & SSB (50% weightage).
(ii) Candidates recommended by the SSB
and declared medically fit will be appointed for training as per all India
merit of each branch / cadre based on availability of number of vacancies in
various branches/ cadres.
(d) Examination
Fees Examination fee will be as per the extant govt regulations. The
stipulated fee is to be paid through online mode. Admit card will be issued for
the examination only to those candidates who have successfully paid the
examination fee and who are entitled to waiver of examination fee.
Click here to download syllabus for INET
for Officers' Entries
Click here for Sample Question Paper
for INET for Officers' Entries
Educational & Other Qualifications
Click here for Educational Eligibility
for Indian Navy Officers Entries
SSB Procedure ( CLICK HERE FOR DETAILS)
The candidates are assessed for various Officer Like Qualities at the Service Selection Boards. The qualities include planning & organising ability, social adaptability, social effectiveness and dynamic ability. The SSB is conducted in two stages as under:-
(i) Stage I Intelligence Test, Picture Perception and
Discussion test.
(ii) Stage II Psychological testing, Group testing and
interview.
Successful candidates are thereafter required to undergo medical examination
(Approx duration 03 to 05 days).
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SSB
·
Candidates are to
report at the concerned Railway Station at the reporting time/date mentioned in
candidates’ call up letter. A representative from the SSB will be present at
the railway station for reception. In case of any difficulty, contact the MCO
of Bhopal/ Bangalore/ Coimbatore/ Visakhapatnam/ Kolkata railway station.
·
If you are appearing
for SSB for the first time for a particular type of commission, 3-Tier
class rail fair (to & fro) will be refunded on production of tickets.
·
Bring the following
for attending the SSB: -
o
Original Matric, BE/B
Tech Degree certificate/ mark sheet.
o
Ten passport size
un-attested photographs.
o
One pair White PT
shoes, two pairs each white socks, white shorts, white T-shirts and two pairs
of formal trousers and shirts (sober colour).
o
Print out of Call
letter.
o
Risk certificate duly
signed by parent / guardian to state “candidate (name) attending SSB with
parent’s / guardian’s consent and at his own risk. Parent/ guardian is not
entitled to claim any compensation or relief from government for injury
sustained during SSB interview”.
·
Change of SSB dates
will be allowed only in exceptional cases and change of venue is not allowed.
The change of SSB dates is granted only by the call up officer/ office of the
concerned SSB i.e. Bhopal/ Bangalore/ Coimbatore/ Visakhapatnam/ Kolkata. The
candidates are required to fax their application for change of dates to the
concerned call up officer/SSB. The details of call up officer are as follows:-
|
Sr. No. |
Name of SSB |
Postal Address |
Tele No Call Up
Office |
|
(a) |
12 SSB, Bangalore |
The President 12 Service Selection
Board Selection Centre South Cubbon Road Bangalore-560042 |
080-25588065 |
|
(b) |
33 SSB, Bhopal |
The President 33 Service Selection
Board Selection Centre Central Sultania Infantry Line Bhopal-462018 |
0755-2732035/2702223 |
|
(c) |
NSB Coimbatore |
The President Naval Selection
Board INS Agrani Red Fields Coimbatore-641018 |
Toll Free No-1800-425-4599
Tele:-04222386-Ext.960 Fax-0422-2325957 |
|
(d) |
NSB Visakhapatnam |
The President Naval Selection
Board 9-IRSD Area Next to Material Organisation Visakhapatnam Andhra
Pradesh-530008 |
Tele:- 0891-2815012 |
|
(e) |
SSB Kolkata |
SSB (Kolkata) Chhota Nadir Road
Down Town Diamond Harbour South 24 Parganas West Bengal-743331 |
Tele:- 031-74255791/24892150 |
·
For any further query,
contact IHQ-MoD (N)/DMPR at 011-23010151/ 23011282, or email officer[at]navy[dot]gov[dot]in
PROCEDURE ON CONDUCT OF
MEDICAL BOARDS
1.
A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board (SSB) will undergo a
medical examination (Special Medical Board) by a Board of Service Medical
Officers. Only those candidates, who are declared fit by the Medical Board,
will be admitted to the Academy. However, the President of the Medical Board
will intimate the candidates declared unfit of their results and the procedure
for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed in a Command Hospital or
equivalent within 42 days of Special Medical Board.
2. Candidates who are declared
unfit by the Appeal Medical Board (AMB) may request for Review Medical board
(RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. The President AMB
will intimate about the procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The
candidates will also be intimated that sanction for holding of Review Medical
Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of
the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate should address the
request for RMB if he/ she so desires to DMPR, Integrated Headquarters Ministry
of Defence (Navy), Sena Bhawan, Rajaji Marg, New Delhi – 110011 and a copy of
the same is handed over to the President of AMB. O/o DGAFMS will inform the
date and place (Delhi and Pune only) where the candidate will appear for a RMB.
3. The following investigations
will be carried out mandatorily during Special Medical Board. However, Medical
Officer / Medical Board examining a candidate may ask for any other investigation
as required or indicated :-
(a) Complete Haemogram
(b) Urine RE/ME
(c) X Ray chest PA view
(d) USG abdomen & pelvis
PHYSICAL
STANDARDS FOR OFFICERS (MALE/ FEMALE) ON ENTRY
4. The candidate must be
physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards.
(a) The candidate must be in good
physical and mental health and free from any disease/ disability which is
likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duties both ashore and
afloat, under peace as well as war conditions in any part of the world.
(b) There should be no evidence of weak
constitution, bodily defects or underweight. The candidate should not be
overweight or obese.
5. Weight
For entries published after 19 Oct 20 (SSC Jun 2021 - AT Course), click
here for revised Height / Weight standards. The following
standards are applicable for only those entries whose notifications were
published prior to 19 Oct 20.
Notes:-
1.
The principle of "Average" will be utilized for calculating body
weight for in between height.
2.
“Individual’s weight is considered normal if it is within +10 % departure from average weight given in
the table I and II”. However, in individuals with heavy bones
and broad build as well as individuals with thin build, but
otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.
3.
The charts are under revision.
6. During the medical examination
of candidates, the following principal points will be ensured:-
(a) The candidate is sufficiently
intelligent.
(b) The hearing is good and that
there is no sign of any disease of ear, nose or throat.
(c)
Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her eyes are bright,
clear and with no obvious squint or abnormality. Movements of eye balls should
be full and free in all
directions.
(d) Speech is without impediment.
(e) There is no glandular swelling.
(f) Chest is well formed and that
his/her heart and lungs are sound.
(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed
and fully developed.
(h)
There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.
(j) There is free and perfect
action of all the joints.
(k) Feet and toes are well formed.
(l) Absence of any congenital
malformation or defects.
(m)
He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an
impaired constitution.
(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound
teeth for efficient mastication.
(p) Absence of any disease of the
Genito-Urinary tract.
7. Major defects for rejection
are as under:-
(a) Weak constitution, imperfect
development, congenital malformation, muscular wasting.
(b) Malformation of the head including
deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull.
(c) Disease or
abnormal curvature of the spine, Scoliosis more than 10 degree by Cobb’s method
till less than 25 years of age and 15 degree in more than 25 years of
age.
Note:- X-Ray of the spine
will not be carried out as a routine. It will however be done on the advice of
the Surgical Specialist wherever indicated.
(d) Skeletal deformity either
hereditary or acquired and disease or impairment of function of bones or joints.
Note:-
Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.
(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs,
abnormality of locomotion including amputation.
(f)
Deformity of feet and toes.
8. Eye.
(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the
eye or eyelids that is liable for aggravation or recurrence.
(b) Manifest squint of any degree.
(c) Active trachoma or its
complication or sequelae.
(d) Visual acuity below prescribed
standards.
(iii) Keratorefractory Surgery (LASIK) maybe
allowed for Short Service Commission intake of officers in the following
categories:-
a.
Observer Entry
b.
ATC Entry
c.
NAI
d.
Law
e.
Logistics
f.
Education
g.
Graduate Entry Technical
h.
Naval Constructor/ Architect
(iv)
LASIK may be allowed subject to the following conditions :-
a.
Surgery should not have been carried out before 20 years of age.
b.
Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before examination.
c.
Axial length equal to or less than 25.0 mm by IOL Master or A scan
d.
Post LASIK corneal thickness measured by Pachymeter should not be
less than 450 microns.
e.
Individuals with high refractive errors (> 6D) prior to LASIK
are to be excluded.
f.
Normal retinal examination.
(v)
LASIK is not permitted for candidates of NDA [10+2 (B Tech)]; CDSE [GS
(X) / Hydrography] and Pilot entries.
(vi) NEW VISION
STANDARDS (NVS-20)
(a). The
Indian Navy has revised its Vision Standards which will be applicable
to candidates whose SSB & medical testing (SMB/AMB/RMB) are scheduled
to commence wef Aug 20 onwards for INET/SSC, Law, Sports, Musician, CDSE, NDA,
NDA/INA & 10+2(B.Tech entries (training scheduled at Indian Naval Academy
in Jan 21 and thereafter for all SSB/Medical batches in future).
# Additional details for Vision Standdares for
Aviation entry are indicated at para 4.
(c)
The other conditions for revised vision standards are as follows:-
(i) The Kerato
Refractive Surgery (PRK/LASIK/SMILE) is permissible for all branches at the
time of recruitment, with following conditions:-
·
Surgery should not have been carried out before 20
years of age.
·
Uncomplicated Surgery at least 12 months before
examination (Certificate mentioning the type of refractive surgery, date of
surgery and pre-operative refractive error from concerned eye centre is to be
produced by the candidate at the time of recruitment medical examination).
·
Axial length less than or equal to 26 mm by IOL
Master or A Scan.
·
Residual corneal thickness measured by Pachymeter
should not be less than 450 microns.
·
Residual refraction less than or equal to + 1.0
D Sph or Cyl provided within the permissible limit for the category applied
for. However, for Pilot and Observer entries, the residual refraction
should be nil.
·
Pre-operative refractive error not more than
+/-6.0D
·
Normal retinal examination
Note:
Kerato-Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not acceptable for special
cadres such as submarine, diving and MARCO.
(ii)
Candidates who have undergone Radial Keratotomy are permanently unfit for all
branches.
9. Ear, Nose and Throat.
a.
Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment
of hearing, disease of the external meatus including atresia, exostosis or
neoplasm which prevent a thorough examination of the drum, unhealed perforation
of the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic
suppurative otitis media, evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid
operation.
Notes:-
1. A candidate should be able
to hear forced whisper at a distance of 610 cms with each ear separately with
back to the examiner.
2. The operation of
tympanoplasty with or without cortical mastoidectomy for a dry central
perforation of tympanic membrane is considered curative once the graft has
taken up provided tympanic membrane is intact, mobile with free field hearing
of 610 cms in each ear separately and a normal hearing threshold on pure tone
audiometry. A gap of three months is considered adequate after operation of
complete healing and graft stabilization. For fitness, the candidate should
also show a normal compliance on Tympanometry.
(b) Nose. Disease of the
bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic
rhinitis, disease of the accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.
Note:- Simple nasal
deformity not causing disfigurement, minor septal deviation not interfering
with nasal airway and small traumatic septal perforation which are asymptomatic
are acceptable.
(c) Throat.
Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting
the normal function of either mandibular joints.
(d) Disease of the larynx and impediment
of speech. Voice should be normal. Candidates with pronounced
stammer will not be accepted.
10. Dental
Condition. It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural
and sound teeth are present for efficient mastication.
(a) A candidate
must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in order to assess the
dental condition of an individual. Dental points less than 14 are a cause
of rejection. The dental points
are allotted as under for teeth in good opposition with corresponding teeth in
the other jaw:-
(i) Central incisor, lateral
incisor, canine, 1st Premolar, 2nd Premolar and under development third molar with 1
point each.
(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3rd molar with 2
points each.
(iii)
When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total count
of 22 or 20 pints according to whether the third molars are well developed or
not.
(b) The
following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each
jaw:-
(i)
Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.
(ii)
Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.
All these
teeth must be sound/ repairable.
(c)
Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected. Where the state of
pyorrhea is such that in the opinion of the Dental Officer, it can be cured
without extraction of teeth, the candidates may be accepted. A note about the
affected teeth is to be inserted by the Medical/ Dental Officer in the medical
documents.
(d)
Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the dental points.
11. Neck.
a.
Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the neck
or other parts of the body.
Note:-
Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause for
rejection provided there has been no active disease within the preceding five
years and the chest is clinically and radiologically clear.
b.
Disease of the thyroid gland.
12. Skin and Sexually Transmitted
Infection (STI).
a.
Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
b.
Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to
cause disability/ or marked disfigurement.
c.
Hyperhydrosis - Palmar, plantar or axillary.
d.
Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.
Note:-
In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/ vagina suggestive of
past STI, blood will be tested for STI (Including HIV) to exclude latent
Sexually Transmitted Disease.
13. Respiratory
System.
a.
History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.
b.
Evidence of pulmonary Tuberculosis.
c.
Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on
radiological examination of the chest will disqualify the candidate.
Note:-
An X-Ray examination of the chest will be carried out.
14. Cardio-Vascular
System.
(a) Functional or organic disease of the
heart or blood vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently
over 96/min at rest), bradycardia (Pulse Rate persistently below 40/ min at
rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulse.
d.
Blood pressure exceeding 140 mm Hg systolic or 90 mm Hg diastolic.
15. Abdomen.
(a) Evidence of any disease of the
gastro-intestinal tract, enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen,
tenderness on abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of peptic ulcer
or previous history of
extensive abdominal surgery. All officer entry candidates are to be subjected
to the Ultra Sound Examination of the abdominal and pelvic organs for
detecting
any abnormalities of the internal organs.
(b) Inguinal or any other hernia or tendency
thereto.
Note:-
Those who have been operated for hernia/ hydrocele, varicose veins, varicocele
may be declared fit provided:-
i.
Six months have elapsed since the operation for hernia and six
weeks for other minor operations. Documentary proof to this effect is to be
produced by the candidate.
ii.
General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.
iii.
There has been no recurrence of hernia or any complication
connected with the operation.
iii.
Fistula-in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Hemorrhoids unless satisfactory
treatment has been carried out.
16.
Genito-Urinary System.
a.
Any evidence of disease of genital organs.
b.
Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis
retained in the inguinal canal or at the external abdominal ring unless
corrected by operation.
Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been
removed on account of disease or its absence has affected the physical or
mental health of the candidate.
c.
Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.
(d)
Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.
(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine
including albuminuria or glycosuria.
17. Central
Nervous System.
a.
Organic disease of Central Nervous System.
b.
Tremors.
c.
Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of headache/
migraine will not be accepted.
18. Psychiatric Disorders.
History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the candidate
or his family.
19. Women
Candidates. They should not be pregnant and should also be free
from gynaecological disorders such as primary or secondary Amenorrhea/ Dysmenorrhoea/
Menorrhagia etc. All women candidates will be subjected to ultra Sound
Examination of the abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities
of the internal organs.
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